On the one hand, it seems intuitively obvious and there's even some empirical data to back up this conclusion. On the other hand, the data for car classes 2–5 are well within random variation, which means the conclusion is ultimately drawn from a sample of the five cars in class 1. (I also suspect that the lines between the classifications were drawn in order to derive a predetermined conclusion.)
Besides, the intuitively-obvious result would have class 5 be the outlier instead of class 1.
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